M
member 3289
Guest
Holy fuck are you stupid.As it stands now, it absolutely is. It's more than half made up of Latin based languages and alphabets now.
In origins, no.
But that's because it's Semitic if you go back far enough.
It is not a Latin language. English has a vocabulary that is comprised of around 55-60% Latin words (30% French-based and 25-30% Latin-based, but again, this is ONLY vocabulary). It still isn't a Latin language. Like German, it is a Germanic one.
German is also not a Semitic language, no matter how far you go back. It is, like most of Europe's languages, an Indo-European language.
Proto-Indo-European language - Wikipedia
en.wikipedia.org
For German to be a Semitic language, it would have to possess many features -- phonological, morphological, lexical, etc. -- that it does not.
People who spend their lives studying linguistics have done enough research to support everything I've written above. You, of course, will continue to argue it because you're an idiot who is so unteachable that you didn't finish high school.
There aren't enough words to tell you how wrong or ignorant you are.